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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

13.06.2025 12:58

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

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What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

How will the 2026 delimitation affect India as a whole keeping the new count of 888 seats in mind (not the current 543)? I’m looking for genuine answers with facts and not rhetoric. I will only listen to answers and not reply to any of them.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

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Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.